Do you really think that you are a gentile, especially those who are from Adam. Jesus said I know my sheep and they can hear my voice. There are races who cannot hear Yahshua's voice. It is unfortunate that almost all Christians have such a lot of mistaken idees concerning their faith. This can be due for the most part to the various mistranslations of words within the King James Bible. One of these mistaken ideas is that most of the people of the United States and western Europe, in fact nearly all the Christians in the world, are Gentiles. You hear many of them in churches, even clergymen that should know better say, I’m just a Gentile, saved by grace. I think it is high time that we learned something about one of the most misused words, Gentile. Unfortunately the dont know there identity.
You may be surprised to know once you have done your study that there is no such word in the Bible, in its original language. Oh yes, I know that you are now riffling through the pages of your King James Bible, looking for some of the many places you will find Gentile in it. However, I said that there was no such word in the original languages. The word was put into it by translators, who changed the wording of the Bible centuries after the last book of the Bible was written.
If you are a good Christian and want to know the truth, you will surely agree with me that what the prophets originally wrote, in the books that make up our Bible, was inspired by Yahweh. It was correct as the prophets wrote it. But not one of them wrote in English, because no such language existed until many centuries after the prophets lived.
The Old Testament was written in Hebrew and the New Testament was originally written in the language that Yahshua spoke, Aramaic (see footnote). This is a Semitic dialect somewhat similar to hewbrew, but not the same as Hebrew. Aramaic was not generally understood outside of western Asia. So, when Christianity began to spread into southern and southwestern Europe, the New Testament had to be translated into a language which was widely used in Europe.
Greek served this purpose nicely as it was understood by well educated men, over nearly all of Europe, therefore the New Testament was first translated into Greek. Protestant English language translations of the Bible of today, are nearly all translated from the Hebrew manuscripts of the Old Testament and Greek manuscripts of the New Testament. Let’s start at the beginning with the Old Testament.
The word Gentile is not once used in any Hebrew manuscript of the Old Testament. There is a very good reason for this, there is no such word in Hebrew, nor any word that corresponds to it. Everywhere you find the word Gentile used in the Old Testament, it is a mistranslation of the Hebrew word goi, which means nation, the plural form of it is goyim. Since it means nation, why didn’t they translate it correctly? Sometimes they did, but for the most part they translated it to fit the official doctrines of the church of their day. It didn’t matter what violence that did to the true meaning of the word. They in fact promote “univerallism” All man kind will be saved. But Yahshua said He came only for the lost tribes of Israel.
The church hierarchy had long since determined what its doctrines should be. If the Bible didn’t agree with them, so much the worse for the Bible. Men were still being burned at the stake, in those days, for heresy. Heresy meant any religious idea which differed from the official doctrines proclaimed by the bishops. The translators did the best the church would allow them to, let’s examine some examples.
In Genesis 12:2 Yahweh said to Abram, “I will make of thee a great nation.” In Hebrew Yahweh said, “I will make of thee a great goi.” It would have been too silly to translate this, “I will make a Gentile of you”, so they correctly translated it nation. In Genesis 25:23 Rebekah was pregnant with the twins Esau and Jacob, while still in her womb, the unborn children were struggling against each other. Rebekah wondered at this, and asked Yahweh what was the meaning of this? Yahweh said to her, “Two goyim are in thy womb.”
Certainly Yahweh was not telling her, you are an adulteress, pregnant with two Gentile children, when your husband is not a Gentile. Yahweh said, “Two nations are in thy womb”, and that is the way it is translated. It is the same word goyim, which elsewhere they generally translate as Gentiles. If you are sharp you would clearly see the reason for it.
Now let’s take some examples from the New Testament. Here the word mistranslated Gentile, is nearly always the Greek word ethnos. This means just exactly nation, the same as the Hebrew word goy.
Luke 7 begins with the incident of a Roman centurion who appealed to Yahshua to heal his servant who was sick and close to dying. The elders of the Jews praised him to Yahshua saying, “He loveth our ethnos and hath built us a synagogue.” These Jews would never praise anyone for loving the Gentiles. The centurion would not have built a synagogue for Gentiles. So, to avoid the absurdity, the translators were forced to translate ethnos correctly as nation.
In John 11:50 we find that the Jewish high priest Caiaphas, was plotting with the chief priests and Pharisees, to murder Yahshua. Caiaphas told them, “it is expedient for us that one man should die for the people, and that the whole ethnos perish not.” Nothing could have pleased this evil [bad-fig]-Jew more than for all the Gentiles to perish, using the word Gentile as we do today. Therefore the translators had to translate ethnos correctly as nation, yet in many places, they mistranslate it Gentile.
The Greek word ethnos simply means nation, it has no pagan, non Israel, or even non Greek connotation. The Greeks distinguished between Greeks and all non Greek people, the non Greeks were called Barbarians. All well educated men of that day knew this. The apostle Paul was a very well educated man, who was quite familiar with the Greek language and its idioms. He recognized this distinction between Greek and Barbarian in Romans 1:14 where he said, “I am debtor both to the Greeks and to the Barbarians.” Therefore Paul never wrote the word Gentile in any of his epistles.
What does this word Gentile mean and from what is it derived? It is derived from the Latin word gentilis, which means one who is not a Roman citizen. If you use the word correctly, then you would have to say that Yahshua and His twelve disciples were all Gentiles. None of them were Roman citizens by birth.
How then is it used at present, when the speaker means to say that someone is non Jewish? About the fourth century A.D., its use was loosely extended to cover more than its original meaning. It was especially applied to those who were heathen or pagan. It became a term for those who were neither Christian nor Jewish. Christians and Jews were generally called just that, Christian or Jew. This was centuries after the last book in the New Testament had been written. The word Gentile was never used by the writer of any book of the Old Testament, because none of them had ever heard of it, as they had never come in contact with Rome.
It was not used by the writer of any book in the New Testament, for there is no such word in the Hebrew, Aramaic or Greek languages. They [the writers of the New Testament books] did not borrow the word from the Latin. If you will look up every place where it is used in the King James Bible, you will see that it is never used in the correct sense, to say that someone is not a Roman citizen. This is the only meaning it had, the only way anybody used it in those days. It was put in by the translators, in an effort to make the Bible say what the translators thought it should have said, therefore it has no authority at all.
Wherever you see the word Gentile in the Bible, remember the correct word is nation, race or people. Sometimes it is used when speaking of Israel nations or the Israelite race, as we have seen in the examples I have given you.
In other instances, the context will show that it is being used for a nation which is non Israelite. Only the context in which it is used will show you which meaning to give it. When used of non Israelite people, perhaps Gentile is as good a word as any, for we seem to have no other in general use. Never be deceived by reading the word Gentile in your Bible, for its only correct meaning is nation or race.
Critical note by William Finck: Paul never uttered the silly non-word “gentiles”! Rather, Paul used only the Greek words τὰ ἔθνη, “the nations”, and knew that he was going to those same nations of Genesis 17:6 and 35:11, which nearly every one of his epistles proves in multiple ways.
I call “gentile” a non-word because in our language it is just that, not an English word. Rather, “gentile” was borrowed from the Latin language, and assigned a corrupted meaning, “Non-Jew”, which it never bore in Latin! The English translators chose the Latin gentilis, “gentile”, for their corrupt translation of the original Greek word ἔθνος (ethnos) because Jerome, when he made the Latin Vulgate, used the word gentilis to translate ἔθνος into Latin. Jerome, however, may well have had more wisdom than the later English translators, since gentilis is defined “family, hereditary; tribal; national ... clansman, kinsman” by The New College Latin & English Dictionary, and describes a people with some degree of relationship to each other. The Junior Classic Latin Dictionary published by Wilcox & Follett Company in 1945 defines gentilis: “of the same clan or race”, surely a word consistent with all scripture (Amos 3:2, Matt. 15:24 et al.) and nothing like the corrupted catholic interpretation of the word! To be honest, ἔθνος must be translated into a like English term when translating the Greek scriptures into English, and no borrowed and corrupted third-language term should be used, especially when that word’s true sense is ignored completely!
Critical note by Clifton A. Emahiser: Evidently Comparet was somewhat influenced by George M. Lamsa’s theory, claiming that many of the New Testament books were originally written in Aramaic, and later translated into Greek, and also that Christ and His apostles spoke Aramaic. No doubt Yahshua and his apostles were bilingual and understood Aramaic, but nearly all of the New Testament books were by-and-large originally written in Greek. No doubt later some of these books were translated into the Syraic for some Aramaic speaking people, much the same as Josephus did some of his. You can read more here.
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Another important point about the "Jews" to remember, at the time Yahshua started His ministery most of the Jews were in Jerusalem and around Jerusalem. They spoke Aramaic or Hebrews, they did not loose their Id or there language. There is no prophecy in the bible that they would loose ther Id or language. But the rest of the Hebrew people the lost ten tribes will loose there language and ther identity. These people are the lost tribes of Israel, the real Israel.
They were lost (1) in being banished from their land. "My God will cast them away because they did not harken unto him, and they shall be wanderers among the nations (Hos 9:17). This language was used of the house of Ephraim forty years before the captivity in Assyria. Note, they are not amalgamated but become wanderers.
They are lost (2) in regard to language. Their mother tongue should be to them a dead "With another tongue will I speak unto this people" (Isa 28:11. If they still retained the Hebrew language, that would frustrate God's design, because to find any great people anywhere using the Hebrew tongue would immediately lead to their identification.
In regard (3) to religion. With them the Mosaic law should be discontinued. "For the children of Israel shall abide many days without a king, and without a prince, and without a sacrifice, and without an image, and without an ephod, and without taraphim" (Hos 3:4). The symbols of the law are here used in token of the entire body of the ceremonial as taught by Moses. Is this true of the supposed amalgamation at Samaria?
And finally (4) in regard to their name. The one commonly accepted or any name in the Old Testament, must be dropped or modified beyond easy recognition. For the Lord God "shall call his servants (Israel) by another name " (Isa 62:4). If there were in the world any considerable numberof people with the Hebrew name, and which had continued for two thousand years or more, we should, other things being true, be able to fix on them as the " remnant " of the lost ones. If any of my readers should still doubt whether Israel were once really lost, let him read further. "I will make the remembrance of them to cease from among men" (Deut 32:26). "I will cause to cease the kingdom of the house of Israel" (Hos. 1:4). "I will no more have mercy upon the house of Israel, but I will utterly take them away" (Hos 1:6). "My sheep wandered through all the mountains and upon every high hill, yea, my flock was scattered upon all the face of the earth" (Ez. 34: 6)."They shall wander from sea to sea" (Amos 8:12). "For, lo, I will command and sift the house of Israel among all nations like as corn is sifted in a sieve, yet shall not the least grain fall upon the earth" (Amos 9:9). "Behold I will hedge up thy way with thorns, and make a wall that she shall not find her paths " (Hos 2 : 6). "Israel is swallowed up, now shall they be among the Gentiles as a vessel wherein is no pleasure" (Hos 8:8). "Therefore they shalt be as the morning cloud and as the early dew that passeth away, as the chaff that is driven with the whirlwind out of the floor and as the smoke out of the chimney" (Hos 13:3). After this, shall it be said that Israel was never lost? Surely, "to cause to cease," to "make the remembrance of them to cease," to " take them away," to be "scattered" and "wanderers," to be "sifted among all nations," to "not find her paths," to be "swallowed," to be as "the morning cloud and as dew that passeth away," as " chaff before the wind," or "smoke out of the chimney," which disappears from human eye, is sufficiently clear to justify our Lord in speaking of the lost sheep of the house of Israel (Matt. 10:6). This state of their wanderings has continued for more than twelve hundred years.
Now as I said before the Jews were in Jerusalem when Yahshua started His ministry and very early He said that He was sent to the Lost tribes of Israel only (Matt 15:24) He answered, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.” There is a difference between the house of Israel and the house of Judah. They are not different races but different tribes but of the same race. Yahshua also said to His Disciples in (Matt 10:6) Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel. Now the question is who are these lost tribes of Israel, the Jews which consist of the 2 tribes of Judah and Benjamin were there, so the other 10 tribes were missing. As mentioned before, they were lost without there language and identity, they think they are a bunch of gentiles as the word "Nations" have been incorrectly translated as "Gentiles" especially in the KJBible. Abraham was promised by Yahweh that his offspring will be as the sand of the see. (Gen 22:17) I will surely bless you, and I will multiply your descendants like the stars in the sky and the sand on the seashore. Your descendants will possess the gates of their enemies.
This tells me that there are million Israelites around the world today which do not live in todays so called Jerusalem who see themselves as Gentiles instead of the true Israelites.This is a big subject if you are interested to study more about this subject. Please go to the following links: list of important articles , COULD THE MODERN “JEW” BE ISRAEL?.
100 Proofs the Israelites were white.
Was Yahshua a Gentile - Who Are The Gentiles?